--- title: Ch6-1 tags: Linear algebra GA: G-77TT93X4N1 --- # Chapter 6 extra note 1 > self-adjoint operator > matrix representation of an adjoint linear transformation ## Youtube * [3Blue1Brown - Eigenvectors and eigenvalues](https://youtu.be/PFDu9oVAE-g?si=RT4LB1LccIssxBmp) ## Selected lecture notes ### self-adjoint operator :::info **Definition:** Let V be an inner product space. $T\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ is called **self-adjoint** if $T=T^*$, in other word, $$ \tag{1} \langle T({\bf v}), {\bf w}\rangle = \langle {\bf v}, T({\bf w})\rangle, \quad \forall {\bf v}, {\bf w}\in V. $$ ::: **Theorem:** Let V be an inner product space over $\mathbb{C}$, $T\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ and $T=T^*$, then 1. All the eigenvalues are real. 2. Eigenvectors correspond to different eigenvalues are orthogonal. * Proof: > 1) > Let ${\bf v}$ be an eigenvector of $T$ correspond to $\lambda$, i.e., > $$ > T({\bf v}) = \lambda {\bf v}, \quad {\bf v}\ne {\bf 0}. > $$ > Then > $$ > \tag{2} > \langle T({\bf v}), {\bf v}\rangle = \langle \lambda{\bf v}, {\bf v}\rangle = \lambda\langle {\bf v}, {\bf v}\rangle = \lambda\|{\bf v}\|^2, > $$ > and > $$ > \tag{3} > \langle T({\bf v}), {\bf v}\rangle = \langle {\bf v}, T({\bf v})\rangle = \langle {\bf v}, \lambda{\bf v}\rangle = \bar{\lambda} \|{\bf v}\|^2. > $$ > Therefore > $$ > \tag{4} > (\lambda-\bar{\lambda}) \|{\bf v}\|^2 =0. > $$ > But since ${\bf v}$ is an eigenvector, ${\bf v}\ne {\bf 0}$ and $\|{\bf v}\|\ne 0$, we have > $$ > \tag{5} > \lambda-\bar{\lambda} =0, > $$ > that gives $\lambda\in\mathbb{R}$. > > 2) > Let ${\bf u}$ and ${\bf v}$ be non-zero vectors such that > $$ > \tag{6} > T({\bf u}) = \mu {\bf u}, \quad T({\bf v}) = \lambda {\bf v}, > $$ > where $\mu\ne\lambda$. > Then > $$ > \tag{7} > \langle T({\bf u}), {\bf v}\rangle = \langle \mu{\bf u}, {\bf v}\rangle = \mu\langle {\bf u}, {\bf v}\rangle, > $$ > and > $$ > \tag{8} > \langle T({\bf u}), {\bf v}\rangle = \langle {\bf u}, T({\bf v})\rangle = \langle {\bf u}, \lambda{\bf v}\rangle = \lambda\langle {\bf u}, {\bf v}\rangle. > $$ > Therefore > $$ > \tag{9} > (\lambda-\mu) \langle {\bf u}, {\bf v}\rangle =0. > $$ > Since $\lambda\ne\mu$, we must have $\langle {\bf u}, {\bf v}\rangle =0$. --- **Lemma:** Let V be an inner product space, $T\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ and $T=T^*$, and $b,c\in\mathbb{R}$ such that $b^2<4c$, then the operator $T^2+bT+cI$ is invertible. * Proof: > Choose ${\bf v}\ne {\bf 0}$, we consider the following inner product > $$ > \tag{10} > \begin{align} > \langle (T^2+bT+cI){\bf v}, {\bf v}\rangle &= \langle T^2{\bf v}, {\bf v}\rangle+\langle bT{\bf v}, {\bf v}\rangle+\langle c{\bf v}, {\bf v}\rangle\\ > &=\langle T{\bf v}, T{\bf v}\rangle+\langle bT{\bf v}, {\bf v}\rangle+\langle c{\bf v}, {\bf v}\rangle\\ > &=\|T{\bf v}\|^2 +\langle bT{\bf v}, {\bf v}\rangle+c\|{\bf v}\|^2\\ > &\ge \|T{\bf v}\|^2 - |b|\|T{\bf v}\| \|{\bf v}\|+c\|{\bf v}\|^2\\ > &=\left(\|T{\bf v}\| - \frac{|b|}{2}\|{\bf v}\|\right)^2-\frac{|b|^2}{4}\|{\bf v}\|^2+c\|{\bf v}\|^2\\ > &= \left(\|T{\bf v}\| - \frac{|b|}{2}\|{\bf v}\|\right)^2+\frac{-|b|^2+4c}{4}\|{\bf v}\|^2\\ > &> 0, > \end{align} > $$ > where the first inequality comes from Cauchy-Schwartz inequality, and the final inequality is the restul of ${\bf v}\ne {\bf 0}$ and $4c-b^2>0$. > > We therefore conclude that $(T^2+bT+cI){\bf v}\ne {\bf 0}$ for ${\bf v}\ne {\bf 0}$, that gives $\text{Ker}(T^2+bT+cI)=\{{\bf 0}\}$. > > Since $T^2+bT+cI\in\mathcal{L}(V)$, it must be invertible. **Theorem:** Let V be an non-zero, finite dimensional, *real* inner product space, $T\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ and $T=T^*$, then $T$ has an eigenvalue. * Proof: > Assume $\text{dim}(V)=n$, given ${\bf v}\in V\setminus\{\bf 0\}$, then the set > $$ > \{{\bf v}, T{\bf v}, \cdots, T^n{\bf v}\} > $$ > contains $n+1$ vectors and is a linearly dependent set. There exists $a_0, \cdots, a_n\in\mathbb{R}$ not all zero such that > $$ > \tag{11} > a_0{\bf v}+a_1T{\bf v}+ \cdots +a_nT^n{\bf v} = {\bf 0}. > $$ > > Let $m$ be such that $a_m\ne 0$ and $a_{m+1}=\cdots =a_n=0$. > > It is easy to see that $m\ge 1$. > > We define a polynomial $p(x)=a_0+a_1 x+\cdots a_m x^m$. According to the [Fundamental theorem of Algebra](https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fundamental_theorem_of_algebra), and since this is a polynomial of real coefficients, we have > $$ > p(x) = a_m(x-\mu_1)\cdots(x-\mu_M)(x^2+b_1x+c_1)\cdots (x^2+b_Nx+c_N), > $$ > where $b_i^2<4c_i$ for all $i$ and $M+2N=m$. > > We can then rewrite (11) similarly as > $$ > \tag{12} > \begin{align} > {\bf 0} &= a_0{\bf v}+a_1T{\bf v}+ \cdots +a_nT^n{\bf v} \\ > &= p(T){\bf v}\\ > &= a_m(T-\mu_1 I)\cdots(T-\mu_M I)(T^2+b_1T+c_1 I)\cdots (T^2+b_NT+c_NI){\bf v}. > \end{align} > $$ > According to the previous lemma, we have $T^2+b_i T + c_iI$ are invertible for all $i$, we can then apply the inverse of these operator to both side of (11) to have > $$ > \tag{13} > {\bf 0} = a_m(T-\mu_1 I)\cdots(T-\mu_M I){\bf v}. > $$ > Since ${\bf v}\ne {\bf 0}$ and $a_m\ne 0$, there must be a $i\in \{1, \cdots, M\}$ such that $\text{Ker}(T-\mu_i I)\ne \{{\bf 0}\}$, that is, $\mu_i$ is an eigenvalue of $T$. --- **Theorem:** Let V be a *finite dimensional*, *real* inner product space, $T\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ and $T=T^*$, then there exists a basis of orthonormal eigenvectors. * Proof: > Assume $\text{dim}(V)=n$. > > Since $T\in\mathcal{L}(V)$ and $T=T^*$, based on the previous Theorem, there exists $\lambda_1\in\mathbb{R}$ and ${\bf v}_1\in V$ such that > $$ > T({\bf v}_1) = \lambda_1{\bf v}_1. > $$ > Let $U_1=\text{span}\{{\bf v}_1\}$, then $U_1^\perp\subseteq V$ is a vector subspace and is also an inner product space. We also have $\text{dim}(U_1^\perp)=n-1$. > > Now we want to define a new map by restricting $T$ on the domain $U_1^\perp$. Let's find out its range (or codomain) first. > > * claim: $T({\bf v})\in U_1^\perp$ for ${\bf v}\in U_1^\perp$. > > $$ > > \tag{14} > > \langle T{\bf v}, {\bf v}_1\rangle = \langle{\bf v}, T{\bf v}_1\rangle=\lambda_1\langle{\bf v}, {\bf v}_1\rangle. > > $$ > > If ${\bf v}\in U_1^\perp$, we have $\langle{\bf v}, {\bf v}_1\rangle=0$ that gives $\langle T{\bf v}, {\bf v}_1\rangle=0$. That is, $T({\bf v})\in U_1^\perp$. > > Therefore, we can then define a map $T_1:U_1^\perp\to U_1^\perp$. It should be clear that $T_1$ is linear, $T_1\in\mathcal{L}(U_1^\perp)$, and $T_1$ is self-adjoint. > > We use the previous Theorem again on $T_1$. There exists $\lambda_2\in\mathbb{R}$ and ${\bf v}_2\in U_1^\perp$ such that > $$ > T({\bf v}_2) = \lambda_2{\bf v}_2. > $$ > Since ${\bf v}_2\in U_1^\perp$, $\{{\bf v}_1, {\bf v}_2\}$ is orthogonal. > > We can repeat the process to find $n$ eigenvalue and orthogonal eigenvectors. The eigenvectors can then be normalized to be orthonormal. --- ### Matrix representation of an adjoint linear transformation #### Inner product with orthonormal basis Let $V$ be an innver product space and $\beta=\{{\bf v}_1, \cdots, {\bf v}_n\}\subset V$ be an orthonormal basis. Given ${\bf u}$ and ${\bf v}\in V$, there exists ${\bf x}$ and ${\bf y}\in\mathbb{C}^n$ such that $$ {\bf u} = \sum_i x_i{\bf v}_i= \begin{bmatrix}{\bf v}_1, \cdots, {\bf v}_n\end{bmatrix}{\bf x}, \quad {\bf v} = \sum_i y_i{\bf v}_i= \begin{bmatrix}{\bf v}_1, \cdots, {\bf v}_n\end{bmatrix}{\bf y}. $$ Furthermore, we have $$ \tag{15} \langle{\bf u}, {\bf v}\rangle_V = \sum_i x_y \bar{y_i}=\langle{\bf x}, {\bf y}\rangle_{\mathbb{C}^n}. $$ #### Linear transformation between two inner product spaces Let $V$ and $W$ be inner product spaces with orthonormal basis $\beta=\{{\bf v}_1, \cdots, {\bf v}_n\}\subset V$ and $\mu=\{{\bf w}_1, \cdots, {\bf w}_m\}\subset W$, respectively. Let $T\in\mathcal{L}(V, W)$, we have $$ \tag{16} [T]^{\mu}_{\beta} = A\in M_{m\times n}. $$ Given ${\bf v}\in V$ and ${\bf w}\in W$, there exists ${\bf x}\in\mathbb{C}^n$ and ${\bf y}\in\mathbb{C}^m$ such that $$ {\bf v} = \sum^n_{i=1} x_i{\bf v}_i, \quad {\bf w} = \sum^m_{i=1} y_i{\bf w}_i. $$ Also we know that the "coordinate" of $T{\bf v}$ in the basis $\mu$ is given by $A{\bf x}$. Therefore, $$ \tag{17} \begin{align} \langle T{\bf v}, {\bf w}\rangle_W &= \langle A{\bf x}, {\bf y}\rangle_{\mathbb{C}^m}\\ &={\bf y}^*A{\bf x}\\ &=(A^*{\bf y})^*{\bf x}\\ \langle {\bf v}, T^*{\bf w}\rangle_V &=\langle {\bf x}, A^*{\bf y}\rangle_{\mathbb{C}^n}, \end{align} $$ where the superscript $^*$ denotes conjugate transpose. As a result, we know that the "coordinate" of $T^*{\bf w}$ in the basis $\beta$ is given by $A^*{\bf y}$, and the matrix representation for $T^*$ must be $$ \tag{18} [T^*]^{\beta}_{\mu} = A^*. $$