###### tags: `108上助教` `數學` # Ch7習題 >作者:啊綸 {%hackmd PO2taSqBSV2DzTe-rjWuJQ %} [TOC] --- ## 7-1 ### 3 ![](https://i.imgur.com/IVQ2nN8.png) **proof** Let $A$ be the set of all perfect squares and $B$ be the set of all perfect cubes. We know that $A$ is countably infinite. $\Rightarrow A \sim \mathbb{N}$ &nbsp; ($A$ and $\mathbb{N}$ have the same cardinality) ==Goal:== We want to show that $B \sim \mathbb{N}$ (proof of Goal) Consider $f: B \rightarrow \mathbb{N}$ with $f(n) = \sqrt[3]{n}$ then $f$ is 1-1 and onto so $B \sim \mathbb{N}$ We prove our goal $\because\ B \sim \mathbb{N}\ ,\ \therefore\ \mathbb{N} \sim B$ and $\because\ A \sim \mathbb{N}\ ,\ \mathbb{N} \sim B$ $\Rightarrow A \sim B\ \Box$ --- ### 4 ![課本](https://i.imgur.com/k0snAz0.png) **proof** Consider $f:\mathbb{N} \rightarrow \mathbb{Z}$ by \begin{equation} f(n) = \begin{cases} \dfrac{n}{2} & \mbox{ if $n$ is even}\\ -\dfrac{n-1}{2} & \mbox{ if $n$ is odd} \end{cases} \end{equation} We want to show that $f$ is 1-1 and onto. **(proof of 1-1)** Let $n, m \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $f(n)=f(m)$ We have two cases: ==case 1:== $f(n),f(m)>0$ that is, $\dfrac{n}{2} = f(n) = f(m) = \dfrac{m}{2}$ $\Rightarrow n = m$ ==case 2:== $f(n),f(m)\leq 0$ that is, $-\dfrac{n-1}{2} = f(n) = f(m) = -\dfrac{m-1}{2}$ $\Rightarrow n = m$ Hence we proved that $f$ is 1-1. **(proof of onto)** We want to show that $\forall a \in \mathbb{Z}\ , \exists\ n \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $f(n) = a$ Suppose $a\in \mathbb{Z}$ ==case 1:== $a = 0$ It is easy to find that $f(1) = 0$ ==case 2:== $a > 0$ Note that $a = \dfrac{2a}{2}$ Let $n = 2a$ , then $n$ is even that is, we find $n\in \mathbb{N}$ such that $f(n) = \dfrac{n}{2} = a$ ==case 3:== $a < 0$ Note that $a = -\dfrac{(-2a+1)-1}{2}$ Let $n = -2a + 1$ $\because a < 0$ , we have $n > 0$ and $n$ is odd that is, we find $n\in\mathbb{N}$ such that $f(n) = -\dfrac{n-1}{2} = a$ By the case above, we proved that $f$ is onto Since $f$ is 1-1 and onto, we proved that $\mathbb{N}$ and $\mathbb{Z}$ have the same cardinality.$\Box$ --- ### 8 ![](https://i.imgur.com/1xbER17.png) **proof** Let $f: [a,b] \rightarrow [c,d]$ be a function with $f(x) = \dfrac{d-c}{b-a}\ x + \dfrac{bc-ad}{b-a}\ ,\ \forall x \in [a,b]$ then $f$ is 1-1 and onto (You can check by yourself) $\Rightarrow [a,b] \sim [c,d]$ ![](https://i.imgur.com/CQKmD9i.jpg) --- ### 10 ![](https://i.imgur.com/b2upd5V.png) **proof** Consider $f: (-\dfrac{\pi}{2}\ ,\ \dfrac{\pi}{2})\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ with $f(x) = \tan{x}\ ,\ \forall x \in (-\dfrac{\pi}{2}\ ,\ \dfrac{\pi}{2})$ then since $\tan{x}$ is 1-1 and onto, $\Rightarrow (-\dfrac{\pi}{2}\ ,\ \dfrac{\pi}{2}) \sim \mathbb{R}\ \Box$ --- ### 11 ![11](https://i.imgur.com/eLRU0SY.png) --- ## 7-4 ### 25 ![25](https://i.imgur.com/WqPD4oz.png) --- ### 29 ![29](https://i.imgur.com/aldCc3Y.png) **proof** Let $A$ be a countable set , and let $B$ be a subset of $A$. Since $A$ is countable $\exists\ f:A \rightarrow \mathbb{N}$ , $f$ is 1-1 and onto Define $i:B \rightarrow A$ as $i(x) = x$ (this is called inclusion map) since $i$ is 1-1 so the function $h:B \rightarrow \mathbb{N}$ , $h = f \circ i$ is 1-1 Hence we prove that $B$ is countable.$\Box$ --- ### 30 ![30](https://i.imgur.com/gOwYMnp.png) **proof** ==法一== By (29) $\because\ A-\{x\} \subset A$ , and $A$ is countable $\therefore\ A-\{x\}$ is countable ==法二== --- ### 34 ![34](https://i.imgur.com/VtEqVwA.png)